Flying Crane
Sr. Grandmaster
Um, no, there is not an automatic correlation there.Published in the Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy. http://www.law.harvard.edu/students/orgs/jlpp/Vol30_No2_KatesMauseronline.pdf
A report from the CDC on Gun Violence
http://www.nap.edu/catalog/18319/pr...reduce-the-threat-of-firearm-related-violence
Neither say what the gun grabbing people wish they did and they are worth reading.
However, at the end of the day this is very simple. Violent crime is down, while gun ownership is up. Causation is impossible without correlation. Since the trends are in the opposite direction, the only possible correlation is an inverse one. Therefore, statistically, the only potential for a cause and effect relationship between guns and violent crime would be that guns cause less of it, not more. Anyone with the most basic statistical understanding can determine this for themselves, study or otherwise.
This discussion is going in the direction of the Political, and I believe that is no longer allowed here so I'm not going to continue with it.
You all are welcome to your opinions on it, as are we all